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The "King James Only" View Is Mistaken
Introduction
Some people believe that the King James Version (KJV), which was first published in 1611 and is also known as the King James Bible (KJB) and the Authorized Version ("AV 1611"), is the
only
English version of the Bible that contains the true words of God. Therefore, they believe that all modern translations of the Bible (such as the NIV, NASB, Amplified Bible, etc.) are corrupt. This debate concerning the KJV vs. the modern translations of the Bible is often referred to as the "KJV-Only Controversy."
Some people in the "KJV-Only" group say that God re-inspired the Bible in 1611 and that the KJV is therefore infallible and inerrant, while others such as
Peter Ruckman
say that the KJV is a new revelation from God that is superior to the existing Hebrew and Greek manuscripts and that the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts should be corrected by the KJV (also see
King James Only movement ).
In this article we'll carefully examine the King James Only controversy in order to determine whether or not the NIV and other modern translations of the Bible are "bloodless" or corrupt. This is an important issue because we need to know which translations of the Bible are trustworthy.
If everything at my website
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including this article,
says what God wants it to say then He will confirm that for you by doing a miracle.
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A Brief History of Bible Translations
Sometime around 132 BC, the Hebrew Scriptures (basically the same as our Old Testament) were translated into Greek. This Greek version of the Old Testament is known as the
"Septuagint "
because 70 translators worked on this project, and stories began to circulate that there had been divine providence and miraculous inspiration in the creation of the Septuagint.
For example, one website says that the Septuagint is "A version of the Bible that is translated into Greek in Alexandria by 70 authors. The authors did not compare their work but produced 70 identical versions" (see
Septuagint ).
Another article says that "The legend was that seventy-two translators worked in individual cells, and when they came together to compare their work, their translations were exactly the same! Many thought that the Septuagint (or LXX for the 70 elders) was divinely inspired" (see
Jerome's Bible Legacy ). So the Septuagint was a new translation of the Bible around 132 BC that some people believed was
inspired
by God, which is exactly how the AV 1611 is viewed by many people in the KJV-Only group today.
As we can see, this type of controversy is nothing new.
In the early fifth century AD, a man named Jerome translated the Hebrew Scriptures into Latin. His new version of the Bible nearly caused a riot, but it wasn't because anyone felt that his version was inaccurate, it was simply because his version was different and unfamiliar (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.11-12). For example, one author says that "Jerome was often criticized for using the Hebrew text rather than the Septuagint as the basis for his translation, but he rightly argued that the Septuagint was not inspired and that a better translation could be made from the Hebrew, the original language of the Old Testament" (see
Jerome's Bible Legacy ).
Jerome was accused of changing the Word of God, which is exactly the accusation that the KJV-Only group makes against the modern Bible translations today. The accusers in Jerome's day were not taking the ancient Hebrew manuscripts as the standard, but instead they were taking the Septuagint translation as the standard. The "Septuagint-Only" group (so to speak) believed that the Septuagint was
the
Word of God, just like the KJV-Only group believes that the KJV is
the
Word of God today.
So again, this type of controversy is nothing new.
A thousand years later, Jerome's translation of the Bible had become known as the Latin Vulgate, and it was "accepted as the authorized Latin version of the Western church" (The History of Christianity, Dr. Tim Dowley, p.196). After the Latin Vulgate had been copied and re-copied so many times that copying errors had crept into it, in 1516 a man named Erasmus published the first printed edition of the Greek New Testament (The History of Christianity, Dr. Tim Dowley, p.365). His New Testament had the Greek text side-by-side with his own Latin translation, which caused him to be labeled as a heretic by the "Vulgate-Only" group (so to speak) for "tampering" with the Word of God (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.16-17).
So again, this type of controversy is nothing new.
Were the KJV Translators KJV-Only?
Some people in the KJV-Only group believe that the KJV was
re-inspired
by God in 1611, and therefore they believe that the KJV is infallible and inerrant. But is that what the KJV translators believed?
Let's go back to Erasmus, whose Greek texts were used in creating the KJV. Many of the arguments that modern translators use when defending their work against KJV-Only attacks are the very
same
arguments that Erasmus used to defend his work (which became the KJV) against Vulgate-Only attacks. For example, the KJV-Only group often criticizes modern scholars for using the ancient Hebrew and Greek manuscripts, arguing that this implies we must learn Hebrew and Greek in order to understand what the Bible says. Erasmus received the very same criticisms when he published the Greek texts that were used in creating the KJV. He replied that with the help of the ancient Greek manuscripts, many corrupt passages in the Latin Vulgate had been restored, and many passages had been clarified that were being misinterpreted (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.56).
One of Erasmus' critics went so far as to say that if the ancient Greek texts differ from the Latin Vulgate, then he would bid the Greeks goodbye and stick to the Latin (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.56). Ironically, some people in the modern KJV-Only group say the same thing about the KJV. Erasmus answered this with a simple question: "What will you do with the errors of the copyists?" Erasmus understood that hand-written copies can contain human errors, which is why he tried to compare all of the Greek manuscripts that he could find in order to determine the most accurate wording. Yet some people in the KJV-Only group claim that the KJV was divinely inspired, even though it was based on Erasmus' work. Erasmus went on to say, "Does it not happen frequently that from several faulty manuscripts - though not faulty in the same way - the true and genuine reading is found?" (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.57).
Erasmus and others whose work became the basis for the KJV never claimed divine inspiration. In fact, they did exactly what the modern translators have done by comparing as many manuscripts as possible in order to determine the best and most accurate wording. So it turns out that Erasmus (whose Greek texts were used in creating the KJV) refuted many of the arguments that are made by the KJV-Only group today against the modern translations of the Bible.
The KJV translators did not use just one Greek text, but they mainly used the text that Erasmus created, plus the revisions of that text that were done by Stephanus and then Beza (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.62). All three of these men made annotations or margin notes to explain various textual differences that they found in the ancient manuscripts. They made their best judgments during the translation process, and they made a number of revisions and corrections of their work. When there were differences in these sources, the KJV translators had to choose between the different editions made by these men. After the AV 1611 was published, new and corrected versions of the KJV came out in 1612, 1613, 1616, 1629, 1727, and so on (see for example
The English Bible from KJV to NIV ).
It's not likely that any of the KJV translators would have agreed with the KJV-Only group that any edition of the KJV was inerrant or divinely inspired by God.
Also, it's interesting that the KJV-Only group often says, "Isn't the KJV good enough for you?," because the very same argument was originally made
against
the KJV itself. In the preface to the AV 1611, the KJV translators replied to this by saying that they wanted to make something even better out of that which was already good. Here's a quote from the original preface in the AV 1611:
"Yet for all that, as nothing is begun and perfected at the same time, and the later thoughts are thought to be the wiser: so, if we building upon their foundation that went before us, and being holpen by their labours, do endeavour to make that better which they left so good, no man, we are sure, hath cause to mislike us; they, we persuade ourselves, if they were alive, would thank us" (see
A Reprint of the Original Preface to the King James (Authorized) Version 1611 )
So the people who created the original KJV felt that it's good to build upon earlier foundations to make a better translation of the Bible. Notice that if this is true for the KJV then it's also true for the NIV and other modern translations of the Bible. For more on what the KJV translators believed, and how their views contradict the views of the KJV-Only group, see
What Did the King James Translators Believe About Translation? .
In addition, the KJV-Only group tends to condemn the modern Bible translations for having footnotes that give alternate wordings for various passages, as if this forces the readers to choose what they want the Bible to say. Yet the KJV translators themselves included alternate wordings in the margin notes of the KJV, just as the modern translations do.
As we've seen, the KJV-Only viewpoint is directly opposite to the viewpoint of the people who made the KJV, and the people who made the KJV had to defend themselves against the very same attacks that the KJV-Only group makes against the modern translations today.
Issues Involved in Making New Translations of the Bible
In order to understand why there are differences between the KJV and the modern translations of the Bible, we need to understand some things about the way in which Bible translations are made. This will help us determine if the KJV-Only group is right in accusing the modern translations of "deleting" doctrines and "changing" the Word of God.
First of all, Psalm 12:6-7 KJV says that God will preserve His words, but notice that it does not say that God was specifically referring to the KJV. In a way, God preserved His Word through the explosion of hand-written copies that appeared all across the known world in the centuries after the cross. This prevented any single person or group from having control over the text of Scripture, which would have allowed them to tamper with the text (whether consciously or unconsciously). The fact that copies of Greek manuscripts are nearly identical even though they were made a thousand years apart is a testimony to the overall purity of the New Testament text (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.47-48).
Translating from one language into another language is not as straightforward as it might seem. For example, in English we sometimes say, "I have a frog in my throat." If someone translates this expression into another language, would it be best to use a literal word-for-word translation ("I have a frog in my throat")? Or would it be best to use a thought-for-thought translation, trying to express the
meaning
("My throat is a bit hoarse")? It's up to the translator to decide. A literal translation might not make any sense to the listeners, but trying to express the meaning involves
interpreting
what was said, which can cause wrong or misleading translations if the interpretation is inaccurate.
Bible translators must choose whether to make a word-for-word translation of a passage or whether to make a thought-for-thought translation. The KJV is more of a word-for-word translation of the Bible, and the NIV is more of a thought-for-thought translation (although sometimes it's considered to be a combination of word-for-word and thought-for-thought). For a description of the type of translation that was done in numerous other versions of the Bible, see
Bible Versions and Translations .
One of the complexities of translating the Bible into other languages is that there are three main families (called "text-types") of ancient New Testament manuscripts, which are referred to as the Alexandrian text-type, the Western text-type, and the Byzantine text-type. Within each family, the manuscripts have similar wording "due to common ancestors and mutual correction" (see
New Testament ).
Erasmus relied heavily on the Byzantine text-type (also called the Majority Text), and his Greek New Testament tends to be referred to as the Textus Receptus, which became the basis for the KJV (see the above article). Modern translations such as the NIV tend to be Alexandrian in character (see the above article), which contributes to the differences between the KJV and many of the modern translations.
Another issue when translating the ancient manuscripts is that they were hand-copied over and over, and various copying errors crept into them. For example, if you ask ten people to make handwritten copies of a book of the Bible, someone will skip a word or a phrase that everyone else did not skip, or someone will misspell a word or two that others spelled correctly. But all ten people are not likely to make the same mistakes at the same places, so by comparing all ten copies it's easy to recreate the original text. In a similar way, scholars can get close to the original readings of the New Testament by comparing the thousands of ancient Greek manuscripts that are in existence today.
Consider that if an ancient scribe left out a sentence or two and then realized his mistake, he couldn't just go to his computer and edit his document. Instead, he had to write the missing sentences in the margin so that the next scribe will know that he should add those sentences back into the text of Scripture. Sometimes scribes would also put little comments in the margins to explain certain passages of Scripture, so the next scribe often didn't know whether those comments should be inserted into the text or not. It seems that they sometimes chose to play it safe by simply adding all of the previous scribe's margin notes into the text of Scripture (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.50). Again, these textual differences often stand out clearly when thousands of ancient manuscripts are compared.
Attacks against the Modern Translations by the KJV-Only Group
Some people have compared the modern translations of the Bible against the KJV and found that the wording is different, so they argue that the modern translations of the Bible have deleted important doctrinal concepts from Scripture.
If a modern version of the Bible was made directly from the KJV, then it would make sense to compare it against the KJV to check its accuracy. But with the exception of the New King James Version, the American Standard Version (also known as the Revised Version), and the Revised Standard Version, the modern translations of the Bible were
not
made from the KJV, so it's wrong to compare those other Bibles against the KJV and then accuse them of deleting things from the KJV. The KJV is not the absolute standard against which all other translations should be compared. Some of the KJV-Only believers will disagree here, but the KJV does not have supremacy over the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts.
I've been asked why I use the "corrupt" NIV, so I did a thorough study of this "King James Only" controversy. In explaining why I use the NIV and other modern translations of the Bible, it's necessary to demonstrate why I disagree with the views of the KJV-Only group, and no offense to them is intended. But if we determine that the accusations against the modern translations of the Bible are not true, then we can be confident about using the modern translations in our Bible studies.
Here are some representative accusations that the KJV-Only group makes against the modern translations, and why these accusations are flawed:
-
The KJV-Only group often uses Colossians 1:2 to accuse the modern translations of hiding the Lordship of Jesus. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"To the saints and faithful brethren in Christ which are at Colosse:
Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Colossians 1:2 KJV)
"To God's holy people in Colossae, the faithful brothers and sisters in Christ:
Grace and peace to you from God our Father."
(Colossians 1:2 NIV)
The KJV-Only group often claims that the modern translations of the Bible have deleted the phrase, "and the Lord Jesus Christ," in this verse, and they say that this is a conspiracy to hide the Lordship of Jesus Christ in the modern translations of the Bible. But many KJV-Only believers might not realize (or they might fail to mention) that the NIV has a footnote at this verse which explains that some of the Greek manuscripts do contain the phrase, "and the Lord Jesus Christ," in this verse:
"Some manuscripts
Father and the Lord Jesus Christ"
(NIV footnote at Colossians 1:2)
The fact is that the greatest weight of manuscript evidence shows that this phrase was probably not originally in Colossians 1:2 (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.37-38), and that's why the modern translations of the Bible don't have this phrase here (except in a footnote). There's no conspiracy to hide the Lordship of Jesus in the NIV because that same phrase (or a variation of it) appears at the beginning of most of Paul's letters in the NIV:
"To all in Rome who are loved by God and called to be his holy people: Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and from the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Romans 1:7 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(1 Corinthians 1:3 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(2 Corinthians 1:2 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ"
(Galatians 1:3 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Ephesians 1:2 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Philippians 1:2 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God the Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(2 Thessalonians 1:2 NIV)
"To Timothy my true son in the faith: Grace, mercy and peace from God the Father
and Christ Jesus our Lord."
(1 Timothy 1:2 NIV)
"To Timothy, my dear son: Grace, mercy and peace from God the Father
and Christ Jesus our Lord."
(2 Timothy 1:2 NIV)
"To Titus, my true son in our common faith: Grace and peace from God the Father
and Christ Jesus our Savior."
(Titus 1:4 NIV)
"Grace and peace to you from God our Father
and the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Philemon 1:3 NIV)
We can see that Paul didn't always use the same greeting, and according to the greatest weight of manuscript evidence, Paul didn't use his full greeting in Colossians 1:2 (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.37-38).
Imagine that you're an ancient scribe, and you're familiar with many of Paul's letters. As you're hand-copying Colossians 1:2, it would be very easy to mistakenly write out the
full
greeting that Paul normally used, without noticing that Paul didn't use his full greeting here. Or, you might assume that the previous scribe had accidentally left out the last part of Paul's greeting, so you might simply add it back in. When books of the Bible are hand-copied, it's easy to see how certain phrases can be "borrowed" from one place in Scripture and inserted into a similar passage of Scripture (whether knowingly or unknowingly). This occurs quite a bit in the ancient Greek manuscripts, and it's referred to as "harmonization" (i.e., making one passage "harmonize" or sound the same as another passage, whether consciously or unconsciously). Again, these errors often stand out clearly when thousands of ancient manuscripts are compared.
There's no conspiracy to hide the Lordship of Jesus in the modern translations of the Bible because Jesus is described as Lord all throughout the New Testament in the modern translations (as in the above passages). For example, the phrase "Lord Jesus Christ" occurs 59 times in the NIV (85 times in the KJV), and the phrase "Lord Jesus" occurs another 42 times in the NIV (another 33 times in the KJV).
-
Here's another example of "harmonization." Compare Colossians 1:14 in the KJV and the NIV:
"In whom we have
redemption through his blood,
even the forgiveness of sins" (Colossians 1:14 KJV)
"in whom we have
redemption,
the forgiveness of sins." (Colossians 1:14 NIV)
KJV-Only believers often claim that the modern translations (such as the NIV) have deleted the phrase, "through his blood," in this verse, and they say that this is a conspiracy to hide the blood of Jesus. But the fact is that the majority of Greek manuscripts don't have the phrase, "through his blood," in Colossians 1:14, and the earliest manuscript that contains this phrase is from the ninth century AD (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.162-163). The NIV shows us that according to the best evidence this phrase was not originally in Colossians 1:14.
Now notice the similarity between Colossians 1:14 (above) in the NIV and Ephesians 1:7 in the NIV:
"in whom we have
redemption,
the forgiveness of sins." (Colossians 1:14 NIV)
"In him we have
redemption through his blood,
the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace" (Ephesians 1:7 NIV)
When passages are similar like this in the Greek manuscripts, "harmonization" can occur. This happens when a scribe consciously or unconsciously inserts part of a phrase where it doesn't belong, simply because that's the familiar way that he's used to hearing the phrase. It's a very simple error to make. We can clearly see in Ephesians 1:7 (above) that the NIV has the phrase, "redemption through his blood," and it's easy to see how an ancient scribe might have "harmonized" Colossians 1:14 with the similar phrase in Ephesians 1:7 (whether knowingly or unknowingly). This explains why some Greek manuscripts such as the ones used in creating the KJV have the phrase, "through his blood," in Colossians 1:14.
If the NIV translators were trying to hide this important doctrinal concept then the NIV wouldn't have
numerous
references to the blood of Jesus (e.g., Matthew 26:28, 1 Corinthians 10:16, Ephesians 1:7, 2:13, Hebrews 9:12, 14, 10:19, 12:24, 13:12, 20, 1 Peter 1:2, 19, 1 John 1:7, 5:6, and Revelation 1:5). That's not what people do if they're trying to hide a doctrine. Yet, on the basis of this
one
verse (Colossians 1:14), the KJV-Only group often refers to the NIV as the "bloodless" Bible.
-
Another phenomenon that often occurs in the Greek manuscripts is called "expansion of piety" (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.46). For example, some people are not comfortable when they hear the name "Jesus" because they prefer for Him to be called "the Lord Jesus Christ." This sounds more reverent than simply calling Him "Jesus." Some of the early scribes apparently felt the same way, which is why some Greek manuscripts contain expanded titles for the Lord. For instance, the majority of Greek manuscripts simply have "Jesus" in Acts 19:4, but some Greek manuscripts have "Jesus Christ" because of the "expansion of piety" on the part of an early scribe (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.45-46). In order to remain true to what the original author most likely wrote (based on the manuscript evidence), the modern translations have "Jesus" in Acts 19:4 rather than "Jesus Christ."
Since the KJV has the expanded title "Christ Jesus" in Acts 19:4 KJV, the KJV-Only group often accuses the modern translations of downgrading the deity of Jesus by deleting the word "Christ" in this verse. KJV-Only believers have charts with hundreds of examples of these "deletions" in the modern translations, and therefore they claim that the modern translations are corrupt. However, the KJV-Only group is
assuming
that these "deleted" words are supposed to be there (even though these expanded titles for the Lord don't appear in the majority of the Greek manuscripts). Remember, most of the modern translations of the Bible were not made from the KJV, so they should not be judged against the KJV. By comparing the thousands of existing Greek manuscripts, scholars have determined that these "expanded titles" for the Lord only occur in a relatively small number of manuscripts. Therefore, the modern translations of the Bible have tried to use the wording that the original authors of Scripture most likely used. The modern translations of the Bible have not "deleted" any titles of reverence for the Lord.
What many KJV-Only believers don't realize (or what they fail to mention) is that in Revelation 1:8 the KJV refers to Jesus as "the Lord" (Revelation 1:8 KJV), but the NIV calls Him "the Lord
God"
(Revelation 1:8 NIV). Therefore, if the NIV is accused of being corrupt for hiding references to the deity of Christ, then the KJV should also be accused of being corrupt for doing that exact same thing.
-
Another phenomenon is called "conflated citation" (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.166-169). When the New Testament was written, it was common to list only the name of the most important prophet when quoting from several different Old Testament prophets. For example, Mark 1:2-3 quotes from both Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3, but the modern translations of the Bible only list the name of Isaiah for this quote. This is an example of a "conflated citation." The KJV does not list the name of Isaiah in this passage, but rather it simply attributes these quotes to "the prophets." Many KJV-Only believers use this verse as an example of how "corrupt" the modern translations are, without trying to understand the way in which references were quoted in biblical times.
Another example of a "conflated citation" is in Matthew 27:9-10, where Matthew says that a quotation is from Jeremiah when in reality it mostly comes from Zechariah. What's interesting is that the KJV
also
says that these quotes are from Jeremiah:
"Then was fulfilled
that which was spoken by Jeremy
[Hieremias]
the prophet,
saying, And they took
the thirty pieces of silver,
the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value;
And gave them for the potter's field,
as the Lord appointed me." (Matthew 27:9-10 KJV)
"And I said unto them, If ye think good, give me my price; and if not, forbear. So they weighed for my price
thirty pieces of silver.
And the LORD said unto me, Cast it unto
the potter:
a goodly price that I was prised at of them.
And I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them to the potter
in the house of the LORD." (Zechariah 11:12-13 KJV)
"And Jeremiah said, The word of the LORD came unto me, saying, Behold, Hanameel the son of Shallum thine uncle shall come unto thee, saying,
Buy thee my field
that is in Anathoth: for the right of redemption is thine to buy it." (Jeremiah 32:6-7 KJV)
The Greek word
Hieremias
in Matthew 27:9-10 (above) means "Jeremiah, a famous prophet of the OT" (The Complete Word Study Dictionary of the Old and New Testaments, Dr. Spiros Zodhiates,
Hieremias).
The above verses in Zechariah and Jeremiah are the ones that are mentioned by various Bible commentaries as being the verses that Matthew 27:9-10 (above) is most likely referring to. Notice that the main verse that corresponds to Matthew's quote is the one in Zechariah, yet Matthew attributed this quote to Jeremiah, even in the KJV. Therefore, if the NIV is accused of being corrupt for listing several quotes by different people as if they were all by the same person, then the KJV should also be accused of being corrupt for doing that exact same thing.
-
The KJV-Only group also claims that the modern translations of the Bible are denying the essential doctrine that Jesus came in the flesh. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ
is come in the flesh
is not of God..." (1 John 4:3 KJV)
"but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God..." (1 John 4:3 NIV)
The KJV-Only group claims that the NIV has "deleted" the fact that Jesus came in the flesh (in order to hide this doctrine). However, the greatest weight of manuscript evidence shows that the phrase, "is come in the flesh," is a later addition by a scribe and was not in the apostle John's original letter (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.184-185).
This is another example of "harmonizing" a verse with a similar verse (whether knowingly or unknowingly). For instance, notice the similarities between 1 John 4:2 KJV and 1 John 4:3 KJV:
"...Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:"
(1 John 4:2 KJV)
"And
every spirit that confesseth
not
that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is
not
of God..."
(1 John 4:3 KJV)
In most Greek manuscripts, 1 John 4:3 (above) does not contain the phrase, "is come in the flesh." However, the similarity between verses 2 and 3 (above) could easily have caused an early scribe to think that the previous scribe had accidentally left out "is come in the flesh" in verse 3, so this scribe added it back in. Or it could simply be that a scribe's eyes caught verse 2 as he was copying verse 3, since they're so similar, and that's how "is come in the flesh" ended up in verse 3 in a few manuscripts. In fact, this very thing happened to me as I was typing these verses in from my KJV Bible. As I glanced back and forth between my computer and my hardcopy Bible, my eyes kept landing on the wrong verse (because verses 2 and 3 are so similar), and therefore I had to check very carefully which verse I was typing in. It's a very simple error to make, both then and now.
However, many KJV-Only believers use 1 John 4:3 (above) to "prove" that the modern translations have deleted the essential doctrine that Jesus came in the flesh. But what they perhaps don't realize (or what they fail to mention) is that 1 John 4:3 is the second half of a sentence, and the first half of that sentence specifically says that Jesus Christ came in the flesh. Here are those two verses in the NIV:
"This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ
has come in the flesh
is from God, but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world." (1 John 4:2-3 NIV)
Even though 1 John 4:3 in the NIV does not say "has come in the flesh" (based on the manuscript evidence), the verse just before it
does
have that phrase in the NIV. No doctrines have been "deleted" here.
-
The KJV-Only group often attacks the modern translations of the Bible for having margin notes or footnotes which tell us that some of the ancient manuscripts are different from others, yet the KJV-Only group never attacks the KJV for having the same type of margin notes. It turns out that the original AV 1611 contained a total of 8,422 margin notes (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.77). For example, at Luke 17:36 the AV 1611 said, "This 36. verse is wanting in most of the Greek copies" (in other words, most of the ancient Greek manuscripts don't have Luke 17:36, which is why the NIV only has it as a footnote). At Acts 25:6 the AV 1611 margin note says, "Or, as some copies read, no more than eight or ten days." Therefore, if the NIV is attacked for containing margin notes, then the AV 1611 should also be attacked for doing that exact same thing.
-
Many KJV-Only believers attack the modern translations of the Bible for trying to copyright God's Word. What they don't realize (or what they fail to mention) is that when the AV 1611 was first published, it had a form of copyright which said that no one but the royal printer could print the KJV for one hundred years (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.244). That copyright has now expired, but it's a double standard to attack the modern translations of the Bible for having a copyright yet not to attack the original KJV for doing the same thing.
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In Acts 16:7, many KJV-Only believers don't realize (or they fail to mention) that the KJV seems to have "deleted" a reference to Jesus. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"After they were come to Mysia, they assayed to go into Bithynia: but
the Spirit
suffered them not." (Acts 16:7 KJV)
"When they came to the border of Mysia, they tried to enter Bithynia, but
the Spirit of Jesus
would not allow them to." (Acts 16:7 NIV)
If the situation were reversed, the KJV-Only group would accuse the NIV of heresy for hiding Jesus' divinity. In order to be consistent, they should accuse the KJV of heresy for that same reason.
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Another way that the KJV-Only group attacks the modern translations of the Bible is that they have "the Son of Man" instead of "the Son of God" in John 9:35. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him, Dost thou believe on
the Son of God?"
(John 9:35 KJV)
"Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, and when he found him, he said, "Do you believe in
the Son of Man?""
(John 9:35 NIV)
The KJV-Only group accuses the modern translations of trying to hide the deity of Christ in this verse. What many KJV-Only believers don't realize (or what they fail to mention) is that "Son of Man" was Jesus'
favorite
title for Himself (which is used 82 times throughout the Gospels in the NIV, and 85 times in the KJV), and that "Son of Man" is clearly associated with Jesus as Lord in the NIV:
""But I want you to know that
the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins."
So he said to the paralyzed man, "Get up, take your mat and go home."" (Matthew 9:6 NIV)
"For
the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath."
(Matthew 12:8 NIV)
"No one has ever gone into heaven except
the one who came from heaven - the Son of Man."
(John 3:13 NIV)
"When he was gone, Jesus said,
"Now the Son of Man is glorified
and God is glorified in him."" (John 13:31 NIV)
In the above passages, the NIV clearly uses the title, "Son of Man," in reference to the deity of Christ. In fact, many KJV-Only believers don't realize (or they fail to mention) that the KJV itself has "Son of Man" in those same passages:
"But that ye may know that
the Son of man
hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house." (Matthew 9:6 KJV)
"For
the Son of man
is Lord even of the sabbath day." (Matthew 12:8 KJV)
"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even
the Son of man
which is in heaven." (John 3:13 KJV)
"Therefore, when he was gone out, Jesus said, Now is
the Son of man
glorified, and God is glorified in him." (John 13:31 KJV)
Therefore, since the KJV-Only group accuses the NIV of heresy for using the expression, "Son of Man," then they should also accuse the KJV of heresy for using that exact same expression.
Again, these are some representative accusations that the KJV-Only group makes against the modern translations of the Bible, and why these accusations are flawed.
Is the KJV Inerrant?
So far we've seen that the KJV was heavily based on the work of Erasmus, Stephanus, and Beza. We saw that these men made a number of revisions and corrections of their own work, and they included many margin notes to describe various textual differences and the reasons for the readings that they chose. They did not consider their Greek texts to be inspired and infallible. In addition, we saw that the KJV translators also included margin notes to explain the choices that they made between various textual differences, and we saw that they believed that new translations of the Bible should always be made directly from the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts. They did not consider the KJV to be inspired and infallible.
In spite of what the KJV translators have said, some people in the KJV-Only group believe that the AV 1611 was directly inspired by God and is therefore infallible and inerrant.
But this brings up a problem for them. The AV 1611 had significant errors in it, and it was revised and corrected in 1612, 1613, 1616, 1629, 1727, and so on (see for example
The English Bible from KJV to NIV ).
In 1659, an article was written that described 20,000 errors that had been found in six editions of the KJV that were printed in the 1650s (The King James Only Controversy, James R. White, p.78-79).
If the KJV is supposed to be infallible and inerrant, then the KJV-Only group has a sticky problem:
Which
KJV is the infallible standard? This is not a problem for the rest of us because we don't hold a particular translation of the Bible as being infallible or inerrant (only the original manuscripts were infallible and inerrant), and we can understand the benefit of scholars using the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts to try to provide the most accurate translations possible. Even today, if you compare several copies of the KJV you'll find differences between them. So which one is
the
infallible standard?
Here are some glaring examples of errors in the KJV:
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In Matthew 26:36, the AV 1611 had "Then cometh
Judas"
instead of "Then cometh
Jesus"
(see for example
The English Bible from KJV to NIV ).
There's a big difference between Judas and Jesus.
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In Exodus 20:14, a 1631 version of the KJV had "Thou shalt commit adultery" instead of "Thou shalt
not
commit adultery" (see for example
The Bible Museum's 'Wicked Bible': Thou Shalt Commit Adultery ).
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In 1 Corinthians 6:9, the 1653 edition of the KJV had "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall inherit the kingdom of God" instead of "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall
not
inherit the kingdom of God" (see for example
The Bible Museum's 'Wicked Bible': Thou Shalt Commit Adultery ).
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In John 5:14, a 1716 version of the KJV had "sin on more" instead of "sin
no
more" (see for example
Different Editions of the King James "Version" of the Bible ).
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In Luke 18:12, should people have tithed on all that they "possess" (KJV) or on all that they "get" (NIV)? It's a significant difference. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I
possess."
(Luke 18:12 KJV)
"I fast twice a week and give a tenth of all I
get."
(Luke 18:12 NIV)
Under the Law of Moses people tithed on their increase, so in this verse the KJV has altered the doctrine of tithing.
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In Acts 5:30, did the Jews slay Jesus
and
hang Him on a tree (KJV), or did they put Him to death
by
hanging Him on a tree (NIV)? The difference is significant. Compare this verse in the KJV and the NIV:
"The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew
and
hanged on a tree." (Acts 5:30 KJV)
"The God of our ancestors raised Jesus from the dead - whom you killed
by
hanging him on a cross." (Acts 5:30 NIV)
In this verse, the KJV has altered the doctrine that Jesus died on the cross.
These are major doctrinal errors, and the KJV-Only group would have a field day if these errors were in the modern translations of the Bible. Since different KJVs don't all say the same things, then how are we supposed to know which one is
the
"infallible" KJV? The answer of course is that none of them are infallible, just as none of the modern versions of the Bible are infallible.
The KJV is imperfect, just as the other translations of the Bible are all imperfect (see my article called
How to Study the Bible).
Yet in spite of these clear problems in the KJV, some people claim that the KJV is infallible and inerrant.
Conclusion
It's important for us to know which translations of the Bible are trustworthy. If the King James Version is the
only
trustworthy version of the Bible in English, then we need to know that.
What we've seen, however, is that some people have taken certain verses from the NIV (and other modern translations of the Bible) out of context and have mistakenly decided that the modern versions of the Bible are corrupt. Many well-meaning Christians have made this error by comparing the modern translations of the Bible against the KJV and by assuming that the KJV should be
the
standard against which all Bibles need to be compared. However, Bible translations should be compared for accuracy against the ancient Hebrew and Greek manuscripts, not against the KJV.
We've also seen that many of the accusations that are made against the modern translations of the Bible can also be made against the KJV itself. It's a double standard to accuse the other Bible translations of being corrupt, but
not
to accuse the KJV of being corrupt when it does the exact same things.
Although the KJV is not perfect, it's still a worthy translation of the Bible, and many pastors and Bible teachers prefer to use it when they teach and preach. But it's not inerrant because we've seen a number of doctrinal and translational problems in various editions of the KJV. Modern scholars are able to study Greek manuscripts that were found
after
the King James translation was made (e.g., the Dead Sea Scrolls), and the accuracy of the modern translations of the Bible has benefited from this newer evidence.
For the glory of the Lord Jesus, the Christ, the Son of God, who came in the flesh, was delivered over to death for our sins, and was raised to life for our justification.
Dave Root
home page and email: https://www.vividchristianity.com
"Therefore I want you to know that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus be cursed," and
no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit."
(1 Corinthians 12:3)
"Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ.
Such a person is the antichrist - denying the Father and the Son. No one who denies the Son has the Father;
whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also."
(1 John 2:22-23)
"If anyone acknowledges that Jesus is the Son of God, God lives in them and they in God."
(1 John 4:15)
"Dear friends,
do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God,
because many false prophets have gone out into the world.
This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world." (1 John 4:1-3)
"And this is love: that we walk in obedience to his commands. As you have heard from the beginning, his command is that you walk in love. I say this because
many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world.
Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist." (2 John 1:6-7)
"He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification."
(Romans 4:25)
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Modification History |
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07/06/2024 - Added an update in the Introduction section.
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01/17/2024 - Modified my comments on Colossians 1:14 in the section called "Attacks against the Modern Translations by the KJV-Only Group."
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02/20/2023 - Modified the Introduction section.
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08/15/2022 - Replaced all 1984 NIV quotes with quotes from the 2011 edition of the NIV.
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07/23/2022 - Modified my closing statement.
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06/11/2022 - Fixed the broken links. Added a paragraph in the section called "Issues Involved in Making New Translations of the Bible."
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11/29/2021 - Modified the section called "A Brief History of Bible Translations." Modified the section called "Attacks against the Modern Translations by the KJV-Only Group."
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11/03/2021 - Made the font size a bit bigger and added a fish symbol as a favicon (which is displayed in the browser tab).
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02/14/2019 - Modified some of the wording.
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05/22/2001 - Modified some of the wording.
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All Scripture quotations, unless otherwise indicated, are taken from the HOLY BIBLE, NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION (R). NIV (R). Copyright (C) 1973, 1978, 1984, 2011 by International Bible Society. Used by permission of Zondervan Publishing House. All rights reserved. (Emphasis added.)
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